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Twelve questions pulled from AITpath’s question bank, covering all 9 domains in the 2026 NAB framework, with explanations and citations.
These questions use the nine-domain 2026 NAB framework, effective for exams beginning July 1, 2027. Exams through June 30, 2027 use the four-domain 2022 framework. These are independent practice questions, not official NAB exam questions. Check the official NAB dates. Read the transition guide.
A resident was admitted on June 1. By what day must the facility complete the initial comprehensive MDS assessment?
Question labels describe the 2026 framework, not the current exam blueprint.
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1. A resident was admitted on June 1. By what day must the facility complete the initial comprehensive MDS assessment?
Quality of Care · KSA 1.6
- A. June 14
- B. June 5
- C. June 8
- D. June 30
Answer: A. June 14
Count the admission date as day 1. For a June 1 admission, day 14 is June 14, so the admission comprehensive assessment must be completed by the end of that day. The comprehensive care plan is due within seven days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
Source: 42 CFR 483.20(b); CMS RAI Manual v1.20.1, Chapter 2, pp. 2-22–2-23
2. How soon after admission must a baseline care plan be in place?
Quality of Care · KSA 1.6
- A. Within 7 days
- B. Within 14 days
- C. Within 21 days
- D. Within 48 hours
Answer: D. Within 48 hours
The baseline care plan is due within 48 hours after admission. A facility may instead complete a comprehensive care plan within those 48 hours if it meets the required comprehensive-plan standards. Otherwise, the comprehensive plan follows within seven days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
Source: 42 CFR 483.21(a)–(b)
3. Who must a nursing facility identify to receive and oversee resident grievances?
Quality of Life · KSA 2.4
- A. The corporate compliance hotline
- B. The state ombudsman exclusively
- C. The medical director
- D. A designated grievance official within the facility
Answer: D. A designated grievance official within the facility
The facility must name a grievance official responsible for the process end to end: receiving complaints, overseeing the investigation, and issuing written decisions where required. Residents can always also go to the ombudsman or the state — but the facility cannot outsource its own process to them.
Source: 42 CFR 483.10(j)
4. An allegation of abuse involves serious bodily injury. How fast must it be reported to the administrator and to the state agency?
Quality of Life · KSA 2.9
- A. Within 24 hours
- B. By the end of the shift
- C. Within 2 hours
- D. Within 5 working days, after internal review
Answer: C. Within 2 hours
Report immediately, no later than two hours after the allegation when abuse is alleged OR serious bodily injury is involved. The 24-hour maximum applies only when the allegation does not involve abuse and does not result in serious bodily injury. Protect the resident and investigate without delaying required reports. This facility allegation-reporting rule is distinct from the suspected-crime reporting rule.
Source: 42 CFR 483.12(c)(1)
5. Replacing the facility’s roof belongs in which budget?
Financial Management · KSA 3.1
- A. The operating budget
- B. The payroll budget
- C. Petty cash, spread across months
- D. The capital budget
Answer: D. The capital budget
The operating budget covers the recurring costs of running the building — labor, food, supplies, utilities. The capital budget covers long-lived assets: roofs, boilers, vans, major renovations, typically depreciated over years rather than expensed in one. Mixing them distorts both the month you buy and every month after.
6. While resident protection, necessary care, and required reporting are being addressed, which step should generally come first in an internal investigation of a resident injury?
Risk Management · KSA 4.6
- A. Securing the scene and evidence, and taking statements before accounts can blur or align
- B. Writing the final report while memories are fresh
- C. Notifying the facility’s insurer
- D. Reviewing the employee’s personnel file
Answer: A. Securing the scene and evidence, and taking statements before accounts can blur or align
Preserve the scene and relevant evidence, and take individual witness statements early and separately. Evidence can be lost when a floor is cleaned or witnesses compare accounts. Evidence preservation must not delay resident protection, medical care, or required reporting; those duties proceed promptly alongside the investigation.
Source: 42 CFR 483.12(b)–(c)
7. A nonexempt CNA on the standard 40-hour workweek works 44 hours. Under the Fair Labor Standards Act, what does she get for the extra four?
Human Resources · KSA 5.1
- A. Straight time, since she volunteered for the shift
- B. Compensatory time off at the facility’s convenience
- C. Overtime at one and one-half times her regular rate for hours over 40
- D. A meal voucher
Answer: C. Overtime at one and one-half times her regular rate for hours over 40
Under the standard 40-hour workweek, nonexempt employees receive at least one and one-half times their regular rate for hours worked over 40. Volunteering does not waive overtime. Eligible healthcare employers may instead use an agreed-in-advance 14-day 8-and-80 arrangement, with overtime thresholds of eight hours in a day and 80 in the period; this question assumes that alternative does not apply.
Source: 29 CFR 778.601; 29 USC 207(a), (j)
8. How often must fire drills be held on each shift?
Care Setting · KSA 6.1
- A. Monthly on days, quarterly on nights
- B. Quarterly on each shift, at unexpected times
- C. Annually, with the fire department present
- D. Only when required by the insurer
Answer: B. Quarterly on each shift, at unexpected times
Fire drills are required quarterly on each shift under varied conditions and at unexpected times. Drills between 9 p.m. and 6 a.m. may use a coded announcement instead of audible alarms. The overnight exception changes the announcement method, not the requirement to conduct and document drills.
Source: CMS-2786R, K712
9. How does a standard recertification survey begin?
Regulatory Compliance · KSA 7.3
- A. With a scheduling letter thirty days out
- B. With a phone call the night before
- C. At the facility’s requested date
- D. Unannounced — the team walks in, and the facility must be survey-ready every day
Answer: D. Unannounced — the team walks in, and the facility must be survey-ready every day
Standard surveys are unannounced. The interval between standard surveys cannot exceed 15 months, and the statewide average interval must be 12 months or less. That statewide average does not promise each facility an annual appointment. Facilities must remain ready to demonstrate compliance throughout the year.
Source: 42 CFR 488.307–488.308
10. After receiving the CMS-2567 statement of deficiencies, how long does the facility have to submit its plan of correction?
Regulatory Compliance · KSA 7.3
- A. 5 calendar days
- B. 30 calendar days
- C. 10 calendar days
- D. 60 calendar days
Answer: C. 10 calendar days
The plan of correction is due within 10 calendar days of receiving the 2567 — weekends count. Submitting an acceptable PoC is generally required regardless of whether the facility also disputes the findings; the dispute runs on its own track and does not stop the clock.
11. Who appoints the nursing home administrator, and who remains ultimately accountable for facility policy and operations?
Leadership · KSA 8.3
- A. The medical director appoints; the DON is accountable
- B. The governing body appoints the administrator and holds ultimate legal responsibility for management and operation
- C. The state appoints both
- D. The residents’ council elects the administrator
Answer: B. The governing body appoints the administrator and holds ultimate legal responsibility for management and operation
The governing body — owner, board, or its equivalent — bears legal responsibility for establishing and implementing policies for the management and operation of the facility, and it appoints the administrator who runs the building day to day. The administrator reports up to it; delegation runs down from it; accountability never leaves it.
Source: 42 CFR 483.70(d)
12. In a SWOT analysis, a new home-health agency aggressively marketing in the facility’s referral area is classified as—
Organizational Strategy · KSA 9.1
- A. A weakness
- B. A threat
- C. A strength
- D. An opportunity, always
Answer: B. A threat
Strengths and weaknesses are internal — things the facility controls. Opportunities and threats are external. A competitor diverting the referral stream is an external force working against you: a threat. (The strategy response might still convert it — partnership, differentiation — but the classification starts honest.)
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